If the binomial distribution $X~β(n,p)$ of mean 3 and variance $\frac{3}{2}$, $(p+q) = 1$, then which of the following is/are TRUE? (A) $q=\frac{1}{2},n=6$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
(A) and (B) only (A), (C) and (D) only (A), (B) and (D) only (C) and (D) only |
(A), (B) and (D) only |
The correct answer is Option (4) → (A), (B) and (D) only ** Given $X\sim\mathrm{Bin}(n,p)$ with $\mathbb{E}(X)=np=3$ and $\mathrm{Var}(X)=np(1-p)=\frac{3}{2}$. From $np=3\Rightarrow n=\frac{3}{p}$. Substitute into variance: $np(1-p)=3(1-p)=\frac{3}{2}\Rightarrow 1-p=\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow p=\frac{1}{2}$. Hence $n=\frac{3}{p}=6$ and $q=1-p=\frac{1}{2}$. Check options: (A) $q=\frac{1}{2},\;n=6$ — True. (B) With $n=6,p=\frac{1}{2}$, $P(X\le5)=1-P(X=6)=1-(\frac{1}{2})^{6}=1-\frac{1}{64}=\frac{63}{64}$ — True. (C) $q=\frac{1}{3},p=\frac{2}{3}$ — False. (D) With $n=6,p=\frac{1}{2}$, $P(X=4)=15\cdot\frac{1}{64}=\frac{15}{64}$ — True. Correct: (A), (B) and (D) |