Meera writes in an essay that the joint family is symptomatic of India and was the way most Indians lived in the past. Which of the following correctly assesses her claim?
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
The correct answer is Option (1) → It was not the dominant form now or earlier, being confined to certain sections and regions
Option (1) It was not the dominant form now or earlier, being confined to certain sections and regions — Correct. The extended family is often seen as symptomatic of India, but it was by no means the dominant form now or earlier. It was confined to certain sections and certain regions, so Meera's claim is a common belief the facts do not support.
Option (2) It was the dominant form earlier but has now given way to the nuclear family — Incorrect. This repeats the popular belief that most Indians once lived in joint families. The joint family was not the dominant form earlier either, so there was no shift from a dominant joint family to the nuclear one.
Option (3) It is becoming dominant now as grandparents move in as care-givers in cities — Incorrect. Grandparents do move in as care-givers in some cities, for example for young parents in the software industry. This changes the make-up of some families but does not make the extended family the dominant form.
Option (4) It was the dominant form earlier among matrilineal communities of certain regions — Incorrect. Matrilineal means property passes from mother to daughter, so the term concerns inheritance. The extended family was confined to certain sections and regions and was never the dominant form earlier, so this assessment adds a claim with no basis.
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