If \(A\) and \(B\) are such events that \(P(A)>0\) and \(P(B)\neq 0\) then \(P\left(\frac{\bar{A}}{B}\right)\) is equal to1\(\frac{1-P(A \cup B)}{P(\bar{B})}\)2\(\frac{P(A \cup B)-1}{P(\bar{A})}\)3\(1+P\left(\frac{\bar{A}}{B}\right)\)4None of theseAnswer & explanation+Correct answer: option 1Use conditional probability