If \(\displaystyle\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\), then \(\displaystyle\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) is equal to
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 2
The correct answer is Option (2) → \(-\displaystyle\frac{b^4}{a^2y^3}\)
By implicit differentiation with respect to x:
\( \displaystyle \frac{2x}{a^2} + \frac{2y}{b^2}\cdot\frac{dy}{dx} = 0 \)
\( \displaystyle \frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{b^2x}{a^2y} \)
Differentiating again by the quotient rule:
\( \displaystyle \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = -\frac{b^2}{a^2}\cdot\frac{y - x\frac{dy}{dx}}{y^2} \)
Putting in \(\frac{dy}{dx}\):
\( \displaystyle \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = -\frac{b^2}{a^2y^2}\left(y + \frac{b^2x^2}{a^2y}\right) \)
\( \displaystyle \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = -\frac{b^2}{a^2y^3}\cdot\frac{a^2y^2 + b^2x^2}{a^2} \)
From the equation of the ellipse, \(b^2x^2 + a^2y^2 = a^2b^2\):
\( \displaystyle \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = -\frac{b^2}{a^2y^3}\cdot\frac{a^2b^2}{a^2} \)
\( \displaystyle \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = -\frac{b^4}{a^2y^3} \)