If $I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log (1+\tan x) d x$, then $I=$
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
We have,
$I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log (1+\tan x) d x$ ....(i)
$\Rightarrow I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log \left\{1+\tan \left(\frac{\pi}{4}-x\right)\right\}$ [Using $\int\limits_0^a f(x)dx = \int\limits_0^a f(a-x)$]
$\Rightarrow I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log \left(1+\frac{1-\tan x}{1+\tan x}\right) d x$
$\Rightarrow I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log \left(\frac{2}{1+\tan x}\right) d x$ ....(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
$2 I=\int\limits_0^{\pi / 4} \log 2 d x=\frac{\pi}{4} \log _e 2 \Rightarrow I=\frac{\pi}{8} \log _e 2$