Let $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements of Lagrange's mean value theorem in $[0,2]$. If $f(0)=0$ and $f'(x) \leq \frac{1}{2}$ for all $x$ in $[0,2]$, then :
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 3
$f(x)$ satisfies Longrages theorem in $\{0,2\}$
$f(0)=0$ $f'(x) \leq 1 / 2$
for atieast some $x_0$
$f'\left(x_0\right) =\frac{f(2)-f(0)}{2-0}$ (as per LMVT theorem)
$f'\left(x_0\right) =\frac{f(2)-0}{2}$
$f'\left(x_0\right) =\frac{f(2)}{2}$ as $f'\left(x_0\right) \leq \frac{1}{2}$
So LMVT holds for [0, x] as well where 0 < x < 2
we get $f'(x) = \frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x - 0} = \frac{f(x)}{x}$
So $x f'(x_0) = f(x)$
$f(x) = x f'(x_0) ≤ 2 × \frac{1}{2} = 1$
f(x) ≤ 1