If \(P(A \cup B)=\frac{1}{2}, P(\bar{A} \cup \bar{B})=\frac{1}{2}\) and \(2P(A)=P(B)=P\), then \(P\) is equal to1\(\frac{1}{2}\)2\(\frac{1}{3}\)3\(\frac{1}{4}\)4\(\frac{2}{3}\)Answer & explanation+Correct answer: option 4\(P(A \cup B)=P(A)+P(B)-P(A \cap B)\)
