If $y=y(x)$ and $\frac{2sin \, x}{y+1}\frac{dy}{dx} = -cos \, x, y(0) = 1, $ then $y (\pi /2)$ equal
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
The correct answer is option (1) : $\frac{1}{3}$
$\frac{2sin \, x\, }{y+1}\frac{dy}{dx} = -cos \, x$
$⇒\frac{1}{y+1}dy =-\frac{cos\, x}{2+sin x}dx$
$⇒∫\frac{1}{y+1} dy = - ∫\frac{cosx}{2+sinx}dx$
$⇒kog (y+1) = - log (2+sin x) + log C$
$⇒y + 1 = \frac{C}{2+sin x}$
Putting $x = 0$ and y = 1 in (i), we get
$2=\frac{C}{2} ⇒ C=4$
Putting $C=4$ in (i), we get $y +1=\frac{4}{2+sin x}$
Putting $ x=\frac{\pi }{2}$, we get
$y + 1=\frac{4}{3} ⇒ y =\frac{1}{3} ⇒ y \left(\frac{\pi }{2} \right ) = \frac{1}{3}$