If the sum and product of the mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 18 and 72 respectively, then the probability of obtaining atmost one success is
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
The correct answer is Option (1) → $25\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{24}$
In Binomial distribution,
Mean = $np$
Variance = $np(1-p)$
Let,
$x=np$ and $y=np(1-p)$
given,
$x+y=18$ ...(1)
$xy=72$ ...(2)
$⇒x^2-18t+72=0$
$⇒(x-12)(x-6)=0$
$x=12$ or 6
$y=6$ or 12
Case 1: $np=12,np(1-p)=6$
$12(1-p)=6$
$⇒p=\frac{1}{2}⇒n=24$
$∴P(X≤1)=P(0)+P(1)$
$={^nC}_kP^k(1-P)^{n-k}$
$={^{24}C}_0(\frac{1}{2})^0(\frac{1}{2})^{24}+{^{24}C}_1(\frac{1}{2})^1(\frac{1}{2})^{23}$
$=(\frac{1}{2})^{24}+24×(\frac{1}{2})^{24}$
$=\frac{25}{2^{24}}$