If $f: R \rightarrow R$ is a twice differentiable function such that $f''(x)>0$ for all $x \in R$, and $f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{2}, f(1)=1$, then
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 4
Let h(x) = f(x) - x
It is given that f is twice differentiable so it is everywhere continuous and differentiable.
Consider the function h(x) defined on [0, 1].
Clearly, h(x) is continuous on [0, 1] and differentiable on (0, 1).
Now, $h\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)-\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{2}=0$ and $h(1)=f(1)-1=1-1=0$
∴ $h\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=h(1)$
Thus, h(x) satisfies the conditions of Rolle's theorem. Consequently there exists $\alpha \in(0,1)$ such that
$h'(\alpha)=0 \Rightarrow f'(\alpha)-1=0 \Rightarrow f'(\alpha)=1$
Now, f''(x) > 0 for all $x \in R$
⇒ f'(x) is increasing on R
$\Rightarrow f'(1)>f'(\alpha)$ [∵ α ∈ (0, 1)]
$\Rightarrow f'(1)>1$