If $I_1 =\int_0^{π/2}\cos(\sin x)dx; I_2 =\int_0^{π/2}\sin(\cos x) dx$ and $I_3 =\int_0^{π/2}\cos x\, dx$, then
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 4
$∵ x > 0$
$∴ \sin x < x ⇒ \cos (\sin x) > \cos x$ ....(i)
Also $∵ 0 < x <\frac{π}{2}$ $∴1 > \cos x > 0$
Now, $\sin x < x$ for $x∈(0,\frac{π}{2})$
$∴ \sin (\cos x) < \cos x$ ....(ii)
∴ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
$\cos (\sin x) > \cos x > \sin (\cos x)$
or $\int_0^{π/2}\cos(\sin x)dx>\int_0^{π/2}\cos x\, dx>\int_0^{π/2}\sin(\cos x) dx$
$⇒I_1 > I_3 > I_2$