If $I_1 =\int_0^{π/2}\cos(\sin x)dx; I_2 =\int_0^{π/2}\sin(\cos x) dx$ and $I_3 =\int_0^{π/2}\cos x\, dx$, then |
$I_1 > I_2 > I_3$ $I_2 > I_3 > I_1$ $I_3 > I_1 > I_2$ $I_1 > I_3 > I_2$ |
$I_1 > I_3 > I_2$ |
$∵ x > 0$ $∴ \sin x < x ⇒ \cos (\sin x) > \cos x$ ....(i) Also $∵ 0 < x <\frac{π}{2}$ $∴1 > \cos x > 0$ Now, $\sin x < x$ for $x∈(0,\frac{π}{2})$ $∴ \sin (\cos x) < \cos x$ ....(ii) ∴ From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get $\cos (\sin x) > \cos x > \sin (\cos x)$ or $\int_0^{π/2}\cos(\sin x)dx>\int_0^{π/2}\cos x\, dx>\int_0^{π/2}\sin(\cos x) dx$ $⇒I_1 > I_3 > I_2$ |