In a binomial distribution, if \(E(X)=40\) and \(V(X)=8\), then the value of \(P(X=1)\) is:
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
The correct answer is Option (1) → \(\displaystyle\frac{8}{5^{48}}\)
For a binomial distribution, mean = np and variance = npq:
\(np = 40,\quad npq = 8\)
Dividing:
\( \displaystyle q = \frac{8}{40} = \frac{1}{5},\quad p = \frac{4}{5} \)
\( \displaystyle n = \frac{40}{p} = 40\times\frac{5}{4} = 50 \)
Then
\( \displaystyle P(X=1) = {}^{50}C_{1}\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{49} \)
\( \displaystyle = \frac{50\times 4}{5^{50}} = \frac{200}{5^{50}} = \frac{8\times 25}{5^{50}} = \frac{8}{5^{48}} \)