If A and B are two distinct events such that $P(A|B) = P(B|A)$, then which of the following is/are possible? (A) $A= B$ Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
(A) and (B) only (B) only (B) and (D) only (A), (B) and (D) only |
(B) and (D) only |
The correct answer is Option (3) → (B) and (D) only Given: $P(A|B) = P(B|A)$ By definition: $P(A|B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$, $P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}$ So: $\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)} \Rightarrow P(A) = P(B)$ (if $P(A \cap B) \neq 0$) Check options: (A) $A=B$ → Not possible because the question clearly states that $A$ and $B$ are distinct events. (B) $P(A)=P(B)$ → Correct. (C) $A\subset B$ but $A\ne B$ → Not generally possible here. (D) $A\cap B=\phi$ → Then $P(A\cap B)=0$, so both conditional probabilities become $0$. Hence the condition holds.
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