If $f : N \to R$ be the function defined by $f(x) = \frac{2x - 1}{2}$ and $g : Q \to R$ be another function defined by $g(x) = x + 2$. Then, $g of \left(\frac{3}{2}\right)$ is

None of these

The correct answer is Option (4) → None of these ##

Given that, $f(x) = \frac{2x - 1}{2}$ and $g(x) = x + 2$

$(g of) \left(\frac{3}{2}\right) = g\left[f\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)\right] = g\left(\frac{2 \times \frac{3}{2} - 1}{2}\right) = g(1) = 1 + 2 = 3$