If $f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}(x-a)^n \cos \left(\frac{1}{x-a}\right), & x \neq a \\ 0, & x=a\end{array}\right.$ then at x = a, f(x) is
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 1
For f(x) to be continuous at x = a, we must have
$\lim\limits_{x \rightarrow a} f(x)=f(a)$
$\Rightarrow \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow a}(x-a)^n \cos \left(\frac{1}{x-a}\right)=0$
$\Rightarrow n>0$
For f(x) to be differentiable
$\lim\limits_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$ must exist finitely.
$\Rightarrow \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{(x-a)^n \cos \left(\frac{1}{x-a}\right)-0}{x-a}$ must exist finitely
$\Rightarrow \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow a}(x-a)^{n-1} \cos \left(\frac{1}{x-a}\right)$ must exist finitely
$\Rightarrow n-1>0$
$\Rightarrow n>1$
Hence, f(x) is continuous for n > 0 and differentiable for n > 1.