A random variable X follow Poisson distribution such that \(P(X=1) = 2P(X=2)\), then \(P(X=0)\) is
Answer & explanation
Correct answer: option 2
The correct answer is Option (2) → \(\displaystyle\frac{1}{e}\)
For a Poisson distribution with mean \(\lambda\),
\( \displaystyle P(X = r) = \frac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^r}{r!} \)
The given condition becomes
\( \displaystyle \lambda e^{-\lambda} = 2 \times \frac{\lambda^2 e^{-\lambda}}{2} \)
\(\lambda = \lambda^2\)
Since \(\lambda \gt 0\), \(\lambda = 1\). Then
\( \displaystyle P(X = 0) = e^{-1} = \frac{1}{e} \)