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If P(x) is a polynomial such that $P\left(x^2+1\right)=\{P(x)\}^2+1$ and P(0) = 0, then P'(0) is equal to |
1 0 -1 none of these |
1 |
We have, $P\left(x^2+1\right)=\{P(x)\}^2+1$ for all x $\Rightarrow P(x)=x$ for all x Clearly, it also satisfies P(0) = 0 Now, $P(x)=x \Rightarrow P'(x)=1$ for all $x \Rightarrow P'(0)=1$ |
