Which of the following statement (s) is/are NOT true in respect of the term "Hindu"?

None of the above

The correct answer is Option 4 - None of the above

Given options:

Option 1- The term "Hindu" was derived from an Old Persian word used to refer to the region east of the river Sindhu (Indus).(Correct)
Option 2- The Arabs called the region east of the river Sindhu "al-Hind" and its people "Hindi". (Correct)
Option 3- The Turks, at a later time, referred to the people east of the Indus as "Hindu" and their land as "Hindustan". (Correct)
Option 4- None of the above (Answer)

Explanation:

The term “Hindu” was derived from an Old Persian word, used c. sixth-fifth centuries BCE, to refer to the region east of the river Sindhu (Indus). The Arabs continued the Persian usage and called this region “al-Hind” and its people “Hindi”. Later the Turks referred to the people east of the Indus as “Hindu”, their land as “Hindustan”, and their language as “Hindavi”. None of these expressions indicated the religious identity of the people. It was much later that the term developed religious connotations.