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Which of the following statement (s) is/are NOT true in respect of the term "Hindu"? |
The term "Hindu" was derived from an Old Persian word, used in the sixth-fifth century BCE, to refer to the region east of the river Sindhu (Indus). The Arabs called this region east of the river Sindhu as "al-Hind" and its people "Hindi". The Turks, at a later time, referred to the people east of the Indus as "Hindu", their land as "Hindustan", and their language as "Hindavi". None of the above |
None of the above |
The term “Hindu” was derived from an Old Persian word, used c. sixth-fifth centuries BCE, to refer to the region east of the river Sindhu (Indus). The Arabs continued the Persian usage and called this region “al-Hind” and its people “Hindi”. Later the Turks referred to the people east of the Indus as “Hindu”, their land as “Hindustan”, and their language as “Hindavi”. None of these expressions indicated the religious identity of the people. It was much later that the term developed religious connotations. |
